I had a measly 10$ on morneau to hit more hrs than pujols in round 1 yet they marked it a loss. They both hit 4 though?
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I had this bet was it graded right?
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Sustain Dan
Originally posted by SustainDanI had a measly 10$ on morneau to hit MORE hrs than pujols in round 1 yet they marked it a loss. They both hit 4 though?
MORE than Pujols.....He tied him, thus he did not hit MORE.....rated a loser........Sometimes it how they word Prop Bets.....hate to see you lose like that, but if that's how it was worded, then it's correct......
Don't make me go Cajun on your Ass!
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Along the same lines, I took a "who will hit more homeruns" bet, for the first round. Pujols v Holliday. Although Holliday hit five that counted for the compitition against Pujols 4, Albert actually hit 6 homeruns during the first round. I had Pujols and was graded a lose. Does anyone think this is worth some debating with the book?
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Originally posted by vsherrelAlong the same lines, I took a "who will hit more homeruns" bet, for the first round. Pujols v Holliday. Although Holliday hit five that counted for the compitition against Pujols 4, Albert actually hit 6 homeruns during the first round. I had Pujols and was graded a lose. Does anyone think this is worth some debating with the book?
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Originally posted by vsherrelAlong the same lines, I took a "who will hit more homeruns" bet, for the first round. Pujols v Holliday. Although Holliday hit five that counted for the compitition against Pujols 4, Albert actually hit 6 homeruns during the first round. I had Pujols and was graded a lose. Does anyone think this is worth some debating with the book?
but to sustaindan, yours should have been a push.wow that sucks!
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